Problem

Source: Romanian MO

Tags: function, induction, real analysis, real analysis unsolved



Let two bijective and continuous functions$f,g: \mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ such that : $\left(f\circ g^{-1}\right)(x)+\left(g\circ f^{-1}\right)(x)=2x$ for any real $x$. Show that If we have a value $x_{0}\in\mathbb{R}$ such that $f(x_{0})=g(x_{0})$, then $f=g$.