Let N be the set of positive integers. Let f be a function defined on N, which satisfies the inequality f(n+1)>f(f(n)) for all n∈N. Prove that for any n we have f(n)=n.
Problem
Source: IMO LongList, Bulgaria 1, IMO 1977, Day 2, Problem 6
Tags: function, algebra, Functional inequality, functional equation, IMO, IMO 1977