Let n be an positive integer. Find the smallest integer k with the following property; Given any real numbers a1,⋯,ad such that a1+a2+⋯+ad=n and 0≤ai≤1 for i=1,2,⋯,d, it is possible to partition these numbers into k groups (some of which may be empty) such that the sum of the numbers in each group is at most 1.
Problem
Source: IMO Shortlist 2013, Combinatorics #1
Tags: algorithm, combinatorics, Additive combinatorics, IMO Shortlist
09.07.2014 20:56
Answer: k=2n−1. To see that at least 2n−1 groups may be necessary, simply consider a1=a2=⋯=a2n−1=n2n−1. To see 2n−1 groups is sufficient, consider a minimal partitions into groups with sums g1≤g2≤⋯≤gm. That implies that gi+gj>1 for any distinct i, j. Moreover, g1+⋯+gm=n. Then 2n=(g1+g2)+(g2+g3)+⋯+(gm+g1)>1+1+⋯+1=m as required.
09.07.2014 21:09
easy and simple.
11.07.2014 08:09
lyukhson wrote: Let n be an positive integer. Find the smallest integer k with the following property; Given any real numbers a1,⋯,ad such that a1+a2+⋯+ad=n and 0≤ai≤1 for i=1,2,⋯,d, it is possible to partition these numbers into k groups (some of which may be empty) such that the sum of the numbers in each group is at most 1. We can generalize this. If for some d real numbers ai which sum up to x, the smallest value of such k is ⌈2x⌉−1. If ai>12, then it forms a group itself. Now, for other ai's, we keep adding, and when we have the sum greater than 12, we stop. Now, there is a catch, the last group may have a sum less than 12 in this way, so we can merge the two if we see their sum is less than or equal to 1. After the whole process, if we are left with just one group, we have nothing to do. If not, let's say the number of leftwith groups is y. Without loss of generality, we can say that, the last two have sum greater than 1 and the first y−2 groups have sums greater than x2 each. Thus, x>y−22+1⟹y≤⌈2x⌉−1. More generalization: How about we consider the sum of each group is at most c?
14.07.2014 03:22
Can't this be applied to IMO 2014 #5?
14.07.2014 07:04
Yes, it can't. In the case of IMO 2014 #5 the numbers are special - namely egyptian fractions; so the considerations of the above do not apply.
23.07.2014 16:15
The answer is 2n−1.This can be proven by induction.Base case n=1 and n=2 is trivial.Suposse that it holds for n.Now let's prove it for n+1.Let: a1+a2+⋯+ad=n+1.It is trivial that there exist numbers such that their sum is greater than or equal to 1 and less than 2, so we put them into 2 groups(this can be proven with a greedy algorithm) and now we have numbers whose sum is less or equal to n so we just divide them into 2n-1 groups.That is 2n+1=2(n+1)−1 groups so the task is proven.
04.12.2014 07:10
SmartClown i don't get your argument, what if we have numbers whose sum is between 1,2 to be 0.55,0.55,0.55,0.1 We cannot put these in 2 groups
10.12.2014 19:12
The greedy algortihm goes like this: We sort the numbers from the biggest to the smallest. Now we take the biggest and put it in one group. If it is greater than 12 we move on to the next group.If it isn't then we continue putting biggest remaining numbers in the group until the sum gets between 0,5 and 1 which will surely happen so we will get two groups whose sum is greater than 12 which is what we wanted.
26.06.2015 04:37
The answer is 2n−1. First we prove that we need at least 2n−1 groups, which happens when we consider the case where every ai=n2n−1. Now we prove by induction that 2n−1 groups is sufficient for any partition of ai's. The base case, n=1, is easy. Now suppose that for n=k we can use 2k−1 groups. Let us look at the case of n=k+1. Now order the ai's from smallest to largest. Call the new ordering b1,b2,b3,...,bd. We start with a sum c0=0. If cj<1, then we define cj+1=cj+bj+1. If cj≥1, then we stop. Let cm be the final sum. It is easy to see that cm<2. By our definition, cm−1<1, so b1,b2,...bm−1 can go in one group. We also know that bm≤1, so bm can go in another group. We have 2 total groups so far. Now let us look at bm+1,bm+2,...,bd. Since 2>cm≥1, we know that k−1<bm+1+bm+2+...+bd≤k. Let us add a "placeholder" number bd+1 such that bm+1+bm+2+...+bd+bd+1=k. Since k−1<bm+1+bm+2+...+bd≤k, we know that 0≤bd+1<1, so we know have a set of numbers between 0 and 1 of bm+1,bm+2,...,bd,bd+1 that add up to k. By our inductive hypothesis, we need at most 2k−1 groups such that the sum of the numbers in each group is at most 1. Now we take the 2 groups we made before of cm−1 and bm along with our partition of the numbers bm+1,bm+2,...,bd,bd+1 into 2k−1 groups, remove bd+1 from its group, and we have a valid partition of the numbers b1,b2,b3,...,bd=a1,a2,...,ad into 2k−1+2=2k+2−1=2(k+1)−1 groups, and our induction is complete.
28.08.2016 12:35
20.01.2017 15:59
v_Enhance wrote: Answer: k=2n−1. To see that at least 2n−1 groups may be necessary, simply consider a1=a2=⋯=a2n−1=n2n−1. To see 2n−1 groups is sufficient, consider a minimal partitions into groups with sums g1≤g2≤⋯≤gm. That implies that gi+gj>1 for any distinct i, j. Moreover, g1+⋯+gm=n. Then 2n=(g1+g2)+(g2+g3)+⋯+(gm+g1)>1+1+⋯+1=mas required. Why considering such a minimum partition will give gi+gj>1 for all i,j.
10.04.2017 02:36
Take any partition of groups, and if there are any two groups both with sum ≤0.5, merge them. Now, Suppose we have x groups with sum >0.5 and at most 1 group with size ≤0.5. Observe that x/2<n, so there are at most 2n−1 sets with sum >0.5. Suppose they each exceed 0.5 by εi, then our last set has sum 1/2−∑2n−1i=1εi. In particular, you can group this with any of the other 2n−1 sets to get a set with sum at most 1. Hence, 2n−1 is sufficient. To show it's necessary, just take 2n−1 of the ai=0.5+ε and the last one be 0.5−(2n−1)ε.
14.04.2017 18:15
13.04.2018 16:10
30.04.2018 00:30
28.05.2018 19:39
10.02.2019 01:30
The answer \boxed{2n-1}. To see that we do need these many groups, consider a_i=\frac{n}{2n-1} and d=2n-1 for all 1\le i\le d. Suppose the a_i are given. There exists some splitting, namely letting each a_i be in its own group. Now, consider the splitting with least number of parts. Suppose the sum of each of its parts are b_1,\ldots,b_r where r is the number of parts. Since this is the smallest splitting, combining parts must make the sum go over 1, so b_i+b_j>1 for all 1\le i<j<r. Summing over all such pairs i,j, we see that (r-1)(b_1+\cdots+b_r)>\binom{r}{2},so (r-1)n>r(r-1)/2, so r<2n. Thus, the splitting with the least number of parts has at most 2n-1 parts, as desired. \blacksquare
10.02.2019 17:10
Nice and easy. Here's my solution: We claim that the minimum possible value of k is 2n-1. To see that k \geq 2n-1, take d=2n-1 and a_i=\frac{n}{2n-1} \text{ } \forall i \in \{1,2, \dots ,d\}. Now, we show that this value of k can always be achieved. This is obvious for d \leq 2n-1 (Take each of the a_i's as a group). So from now on we consider only d \geq 2n. Our solution will rely upon the following Lemma- LEMMA Suppose n \in \mathbb{N} and d \geq 2n be a positive integer. Given d real numbers a_1,a_2, \dots ,a_d \in [0,1] satisfying a_1+a_2+ \dots +a_d=n, we must have a_i+a_j \leq 1 for some i \neq j. Proof of Lemma- The Lemma is quite trivial tbh. Assume to the contrary that a_i+a_j>1 for every i \neq j. Adding up these inequalities for all possible pairs, we have (d-1) \left(\sum_{i=1}^d a_i \right)>\binom{d}{2} \Rightarrow (d-1)n>\frac{d(d-1)}{2} \Rightarrow d<2nwhich contradicts the fact that d \geq 2n. Thus, our Lemma is true. \Box Return to the problem at hand. We induct on d \geq 2n. The base case d=2n follows easily from our Lemma (Take (a_1,a_j) with a_i+a_j \leq 1 as one group, and put each of the other a_i's into the remaining 2n-2 groups). Assume that the result is true for d=2n+m-1. In the case of d=2n+m, form a new element A=a_i+a_j where a_i+a_j \leq 1 is chosen as in our Lemma. Then we can apply our inductive hypothesis on A along with the remaining real numbers to get the required 2n-1 partitions. Hence, done. \blacksquare REMARK: I realised after doing the problem by the inductive approach in my solution, that the problem can be done without mentioning induction also, as we didn't really benefit from the inductive hypothesis. In that case, we'd get a solution quite similar to the one given above. Nevertheless, I am including my solution as I found it a quite interesting approach to induct on d instead of n (which some of the users have done previously).
27.04.2019 08:59
Cute problem! lyukhson wrote: Let n be an positive integer. Find the smallest integer k with the following property; Given any real numbers a_1 , \cdots , a_d such that a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_d = n and 0 \le a_i \le 1 for i=1,2,\cdots ,d, it is possible to partition these numbers into k groups (some of which may be empty) such that the sum of the numbers in each group is at most 1. We will show that the minimum is k=2n-1. To see that this is the minimum, consider the case when a_i=\tfrac{n}{2n-1} for all i. We will now show that this value of k is the optimal for any minimal partition. Let s_1, s_2, \cdots s_k be a minimal partition of a_i. Then s_i<1 and by minimality, s_i+s_j>1 for all i \ne j. Thus n=(s_1+s_2)+(s_3+s_4)+\cdots+(s_{k-1}+s_k) > \frac{k}{2} \implies 2n>k \quad \text{(if k is even)}n=(s_1+s_2)+(s_3+s_4)+\cdots+(s_{k-2}+s_{k-1})+s_k > \frac{k-1}{2}+s_k \implies 2n>k-1+2s_k \implies 2n \ge k+2s_k >k \quad \text{(if k is odd)}Hence, we are done. \square
13.02.2024 08:48
Answer is k=2n-1. For a construction, just take each group to consist of \tfrac{n}{2n-1} \le 1. Now we will show that k \ge 2n-1 is necessary. The key is to take an optimal partition, you cannot group together two or more groups to form another one. Thus, if S_1, \dots, S_k are the sums of the numbers in the group (written in increasing order), we have S_i+S_j>1 for any distinct i and j. Summing this inequality globally returns 2\binom{k}{2} < n(2k-2), or k > 2n, as desired. Remark: Always try the local idea of making collections of blocks compact", so that the optimal number of blocks is used. This is extremely useful in the so-called weighted blocks problems".
13.06.2024 23:45
We claim the answer is \boxed{2n-1}, with contruction a_i= \frac{n}{2n-1}, for 1 \le i, \le 2n-1, since it is impossible to combine since a_j+a_k >1 for all 1 \le j, k \le 2n-1. To prove this is maximal, if we combine a_is that are less than .5 we will eventually have all a_is greater than .5, or have one that is less than .5 call it a_x, and the rest greater than 1-a_x. In the first case, we must have an amount of a_is less than 2n or less than or equal to 2n-1 and we are finished for this case. In the second case we have at most \frac{n}{1-a_x}+1 terms total however notice that for a_x to not be able to "complete" any other term then 1- a_x > \frac{n}{2n-1} or 2n > \frac{n}{1-a_x}+1 so we are able to finish in this case. \square
17.08.2024 11:46
The answer is \boxed{2n-1}. Construction simply take 2n-1 copies of \frac{n}{2n-1}. No two can be in the same box else the sum is over 1. so at least 2n-1 boxes required. Proof of minimality: Say some set required over 2n-1 boxes.clearly each box has to have sum over \frac{1}{2} else 2 boxes can be merged. but this way the sum is more than \frac{1}{2} \cdot 2n = n. contradiction. So we are done.
08.09.2024 00:12
I claim the answer is 2n - 1. Bound: Take a_i = \frac 12 + \frac{1}{4(2n - 1)} for 1 \le i \le 2n - 1, a_{2n} = \frac 14. None of the first 2n - 1 elements of a can be in the same group, so we are done. Construction: Assume we have k > 2n - 1 groups as the minimum. Then we can always separate each of the groups into n sets, with each set containing at least 2 groups. One of these sets must have sum of groups at most 1, so we can just combine those groups to get a smaller answer, contradiction.
08.09.2024 01:36
I claim that the answer is 2n-1. First, I will prove that we need at least 2n-1. This can be done by considering the d=2n-1, with a_1=a_2=\dots=a_d=\frac{n}{2n-1}. Note that no two of these a_i's can go together in a single group, since \frac{2n}{2n-1}>1. Therefore they must each go in there own group, which requires at least 2n-1 groups, as desired. I now will prove that 2n-1 groups always suffices. First, consider our d real numbers as line segments of length a_i each, and consider the number line spanning from 0 to 2n-1. Our problem is then equivalent to placing these d segments on this number line so that a) no two line segments overlap and b) no line segment can intersect an integer point except at an endpoint (i.e., if our line segment has length a_i, if we place it so that its leftmost point is x, then there can be no integer between x and x+a_i, NON-inclusive). These two problems are equivalent because if we can do the latter, then we can take the groups of a_i's corresponding to the line segments in each of the 2n-1 of our [k,k+1] intervals (integer k) and consider them as our 2n-1 groups. Now, we can always do this as follows. First, without regard for our second condition, since \sum a_i=n, we can pack the d line segments from 0 to n. Then, there will be some "overflow," or line segments that intersect integer points at non-endpoint places. Note that there are at most n-1 of these segments, one for each of the integers 1, 2, \dots, n-1 (but not 0 or n, because they are endpoints of line segments). Then, note that we still have the n-1 intervals [n,n+1], [n+1,n+2], \dots, [2n-2,2n-1] left completely empty. We can take these \leq n-1 "overflow" segments and move them so that each one is in its own one of these n-1 "remaining" empty intervals. This makes it so that no two line segments overlap, and none of our d line segments intersect an integer point other than an endpoint, as desired. Therefore we can always split our d numbers into 2n-1 groups so that the sum of the numbers in each group is \leq 1, finishing the problem. This problem is similar to this problem (China 1990): In an arena, each row has 199 seats. One day, 1990 students are coming to attend a soccer match. It is only known that at most 39 students are from the same school. If students from the same school must sit in the same row, determine the minimum number of rows that must be reserved for these students.
08.09.2024 16:20
We claim that the smallest integer is k=2n-1. To see why k\ge 2n-1, consider a_1=\dots = a_{2n-1}=0.5+\epsilon and a_{2n}=n-(2n-1)a_1 for sufficiently small \epsilon.Then, no two of the a_i for 1\le i \le 2n-1 terms can be in the same group, implying that we need atleast 2n-1 groups. We now show that it is always possible to partition these numbers into 2n-1 groups as desired. We simply order the numbers a_1\ge a_2 \ge \dots \ge a_d in decreasing order, and groups G_1 , G_2, \dots , G_{2n-1} and choose the largest unplaced number and place in the smallest index group which has space for it. Say this algorithm eventually fails. Say we successfully placed a_1, \dots, a_{r-1} into groups and we have no space for a_r (note r \ge 2n). Then, let S_i denote the sum of the numbers already placed in group G_i. Then, for all 1\le i \le 2n-1, 1-S_i < a_r. Summing these equations gives, (2n-1)a_r > 2n-1-(a_1+\dots + a_{r-1}) \ge 2n-1 (n-a_r)which upon rearrangement implies a_r > \frac{1}{2}. But then, a_1+a_2+\dots + a_r > \frac{r}{2} \ge \frac{2n}{2} = nwhich is a clear contradiction.
06.10.2024 00:52
We claim our answer is k = \boxed{2n-1}, which is constructable with a_1 = \ldots = a_{2n-1} = \frac{n}{2n-1} and noticing the sum of any two or more is \ge \frac{2n}{2n-1} > 1, so they must all be a lone group. If d \leq 2n-1, clearly we have d \leq k groups. Otherwise, we can always fuse two numbers a_i and a_j to get a sum of less than 1 by averaging principle. Thus we can induct down to d = 2n-1 numbers at most 1, from which we let each individual term be a lone group. \blacksquare
22.10.2024 22:45
100th post
21.12.2024 03:19
For n=1, just group up the terms into 1 group with sum 1. For n \ge 2 consider a_1= a_2 = \cdots = a_{2n-1} = \frac{n}{2n-1}Since combining any two of these two terms gives us a sum >1 we know that k \ge 2n-1. Now suppose that we have \ge 2n terms. The average sum of two terms chosen at random is at most \frac{2n}{2n}=1 so by the averaging principal we can combine two terms into a group with sum \le 1. We can keep repeating this process until we have 2n-1 terms. So our answer is \boxed{2n-1}.
27.12.2024 00:48
The answer is k = 2n - 1. Necessity: Take the real numbers \frac{n}{2n-1}, \frac{n}{2n-1}, \dots, \frac{n}{2n-1} with 2n-1 elements on this list. If k < 2n-1, two numbers must go in the same group, making the sum \frac{n}{2n-1} + \frac{n}{2n-1} > 1. Sufficiency: The construction is clear for d \le 2n-1 (just put each number into its own group, and make the spare groups empty). For d \ge 2n-1, we will induct on d, with the base case d = 2n-1 described above. Reorder the list as a_1 \le a_2 \le \dots \le a_d. Now, the trick is that a_1 + a_2 \le 1. Suppose otherwise; then a_1 + a_2 > 1, and similarly a_{2i-1} + a_{2i} > 1 for all 1 \le i \le n since d \ge 2n. Summing these inequalities up gives a_1 + \dots + a_{2i} > n, which is a contradiction. Therefore, a_1 + a_2 \le 1, so we can create a new list a_1 + a_2, a_3, a_4, \dots, a_d with d-1 elements satisfying that each element is between 0 and 1, inclusive. Applying our inductive hypothesis, we conclude our proof of sufficiency. Thus our answer is k = 2n-1, as claimed.
01.01.2025 22:33
Let the sums be s_1,s_2,.....,s_t. Then s_i+s_{i+1}>1 for i=1,2,....,t and s_{t+1}=s_1. Now summing cyclically gives us that 2n>t or 2n-1 \geq t. If t=2n-1 then for construction purposes take s_i=s_j for all i,j in \{ 1,2,.....,t \} giving us that all of them are equal to \frac{n}{2n-1} which is a valid construction.
03.01.2025 08:21
The answer is \boxed{k=2n-1}. Note that 2n-1 is needed by setting a_1=a_2=\dots=a_{2n-1}=\frac{n}{2n-1}. No group can have more than one elements, so we need a group for every element which implies the conclusion. To see that 2n-1 is sufficient, we induct on d. Notably when d \leq 2n-1 the answer is in the process described above, so our base cases are concluded. Assume it is true for some d_0 \geq 2n-1. Now we have a_1+a_2+\dots+a_{d_0+1} = n. The key claim is that there exists some pair of a_i, a_j such that their sum is at most 1. Assume the contrary for the sake of contradiction, then doing a global sum gives us that \sum a_i > \frac{\binom{d_0+1}{2}}{d_0} = \frac{d_0+1}{2} \geq n, which is impossible. Therefore we can reduce this to the d_0 case which is covered by our inductive hypothesis, so we are done.
04.01.2025 18:43
Claim 1: If k \leq 2n - 2, it can't work. For this part, we simply provide a construction. Consider y = 0.50000....1, such that (2n - 1)y < n < 2n \cdot y. Now consider the real numbers a_1 = y, a_2 = y, \dots, a_{2n - 1} = y, a_{2n} = n - (2n - 1)y. Note that n - (2n - 1)y < n - (2n - 1)\cdot 0.5 = 0.5, so we can pair a_{2n}, with at maximum one number, let this be a_{2n - 1}. However, for a_1, \dots, a_{2n - 2}, we cannot have any two a_{i}, a_{j} in one subset since a_{i} + a_{j} > 1. So, each number will take up one subset and therefore, \geq 2n - 2 + 1 = 2n - 1 subsets are required. Claim 2: k = 2n - 1 works: Say, k = m > 2m - 1 works. Let the sum of set 1 be s_1, sum of set 2 be s_2, and so on. For the sake of contradiction, s_i + s_j > 1, for all i, j. Then, (s_1 + s_2) + (s_1 + s_3) + \dots + (s_1 + s_m) + (s_2 + s_3) + \dots (s_{m - 1} + s_m) > \binom{m}{2} = \frac{m(m - 1)}{2}. However, note that this sum is also equal to (m - 1)(s_1 + s_2 + ... + s_m) = n(m - 1). So, n(m - 1) > \frac{m(m - 1)}{2} \implies 2n > m, a contradiction. Therefore, WLOG, let s_1 + s_2 \leq 1, and we can merge these two sets. We can keep merging sets until we eventually hit k = 2n - 1, as required, so done.
04.01.2025 23:00
We claim the answer is 2n-1 Why 2n-1 is minimum :- Consider the fractions 2n-1 terms that are \frac{n}{2n-1} each which sum to n note that they can't be in a single group because then the sum will be greater than 1. Hence there must be at least 2n-1 different groups Why 2n-1 always works:- Assume there are greater than 2n-1 groups, note that pairwise their sum should be greater than 1 else just we could merge two groups up till it satisfies the pairwise greater than 1 property, If there's less than 2n-1 groups then we are done, else add everything cyclically to get n = s_1 + s_2 + .... +s_{2n-1} + s_{2n} +..... > \frac{2n}{2} = n Which is a contradiction and so we are done.
10.01.2025 21:52
We claim that the answer is k=2n-1. For the construction, notice that letting a_1=a_2=\cdots = a_{2n-1} = \frac{2n+1}{4n},then a_{2n}=\frac{1}{4n}. Then clearly we require at least 2n-1 groups. Now, for the bound, we proceed with induction on d. The base cases, 1 \leq d \leq 2n-1, are all trivial. Now assume that the proposition holds for d=k \geq 2n-1. Note that if there does not exist a_i, a_j such that a_i+a_j \leq 1, it follows that a_i+a_j > 1 for all i, j. Then summing this up yields \binom{k-1}{1} \sum 2a_i \geq \binom{k}{2} \implies n > k \geq 2n-1,a contradiction. Thus there exists a_i, a_j with a sum less than or equal to 1, and by the inductive hypothesis we are done. QED