Consider the sytem of equations \[ a_{11}x_1+a_{12}x_2+a_{13}x_3 = 0 \]\[a_{21}x_1+a_{22}x_2+a_{23}x_3 =0\]\[a_{31}x_1+a_{32}x_2+a_{33}x_3 = 0 \] with unknowns $x_1, x_2, x_3$. The coefficients satisfy the conditions: a) $a_{11}, a_{22}, a_{33}$ are positive numbers; b) the remaining coefficients are negative numbers; c) in each equation, the sum ofthe coefficients is positive. Prove that the given system has only the solution $x_1=x_2=x_3=0$.
Problem
Source: IMO 1965, Day 1, Problem 2
Tags: linear algebra, matrix, function, algebra, system of equations, IMO, IMO 1965
16.08.2007 01:40
It seems that this problem needs a solution. Solution. Assume without loss of generality that $ |x_{3}|\geq|x_{2}|\geq |x_{1}|$. Assume to the contrary that $ |x_{3}|>0$. Then it follows, from the given conditions, that \begin{eqnarray*}0&=&\left| a_{31}\frac{x_{1}}{x_{3}}+a_{32}\frac{x_{2}}{x_{3}}+a_{33}\right|\cdot|x_{3}|\\ &\geq& |x_{3}|(a_{33}-|a_{32}|-|a_{31}|)\\ &=& |x_{3}|(a_{33}+a_{32}+a_{31})>0\end{eqnarray*} Contradiction! It follows that $ x_{1}=x_{2}=x_{3}=0,$ as required. $ \Box$
21.10.2007 05:00
This problem can also be solved using determinants . P.S. Sorry for reviving the old thread, I wanted to look at the original problem because this problem is printed wrong in my book (otherwise it make no sense).
30.01.2010 20:05
30.01.2010 22:23
The system of equations has the unique solution $ x_1 = x_2 = x_3 = 0$ iff $ b_1 = (a_{11},a_{12},a_{13}), b_2 = (a_{21},a_{22},a_{23}), b_3 = (a_{31}, a_{32}, a_{33})$ is linear independent. Assume they are not. So there exists $ (x_1,x_2,x_3) \neq (0,0,0)$ s.t. $ x_1b_1 + x_2b_2 + x_3b_3 = 0$. c) implies that not all of $ x_1,x_2,x_3$ has the same sign. wlog asume that $ x_1$ has another sign than $ x_2,x_3$ and $ x_1 \neq 0$. Hence the first entry of $ x_1b_1 + x_2b_2 + x_3b_3$ has the same sign as $ x_1$ since $ a_{11} > 0$. Contradiction. So $ b_1,b_2,b_3$ are linear independent and the system of equations has the unique solution $ x_1 = x_2 = x_3 = 0$.
11.08.2016 07:20
Would this solution work? If not, could anyone explain a solution using this approach?
Thanks.
27.08.2022 02:06
Let $$A=\begin{pmatrix}a_{11}&a_{12}&a_{13}\\a_{21}&a_{22}&a_{23}\\a_{31}&a_{32}&a_{33}\end{pmatrix}$$In order to show that $\dim(\ker(A))=0$ we only need to show that $rank(A)=3$.(By rank nullity Theorem.) Suppose FTSoC the columns $C_i$ ($i=1,2,3$) of $A$ are linearly dependent.Then there are reals $b_1,b_2,b_3$ not all 0 such that $$b_1C_1+b_2C_2+b_3C_3=\textbf{0}$$ Let $i\in\{1,2,3\}$ be the integer such that $b_i$ has maximum absolute value among $b_1,b_2,b_3$. But then $$|a_{ii}|=|\sum_{j\ne i} \frac{b_j}{b_i} a_{ij}|\le \sum_{j\ne i} |\frac{b_j}{b_i} a_{ij}|\le \sum_{j\ne i} | a_{ij}|<|a_{ii}|$$But this is impossible.Hence $rank(A)=3$.$\blacksquare$