Let $a_{1},a_{2},...,a_{n}$ be positive real numbers with $a_{1}\leq a_{2}\leq ... a_{n}$ such that the arithmetic mean of $a_{1}^{2},...,a_{n}^{2}$ is 1. If the arithmetic mean of $a_{1}, a_{2},...,a_{n}$ is $m$. Prove that if $a_{i}\leq$ m for some $1 \leq i \leq n$, then $n(m-a_{i})^2\leq n-i$