It is quite classical am I wrong?
Unicity : If $x \neq y$ are such that $f(x)=x$ and $f(y)=y$ then $|x-y| = |f(x)-f(y)| < c|x-y| < |x-y|$ which is absurd.
Existence :
Let $a \in A$. Let $x_0 = a$ and $x_{n+1} = f(x_n).$ (1)
Thus $|x_{n+1}-x_n | < c |x_n - x_{n-1}|.$
Using that $c<1$, it is now easy to deduce that the sequence has the Cauchy property. Since $\mathbb {R}^m$ is a complete space, we deduce that the sequence has a limit, say $L$. Since $A$ is closed and each of the $x_i$ is in $A$, it follows that $L$ is in $A$.
That $L = f(L)$ is obvious from (1).
Pierre.