Let $\mathbb{N}=\{1,2,\ldots\}$. Find all functions $f: \mathbb{N}\to\mathbb{N}$ such that for all $m,n\in \mathbb{N}$ the number $f^2(m)+f(n)$ is a divisor of $(m^2+n)^2$.
Problem
Source: Romanian IMO TST 2005 - day 5, problem 3
Tags: function, linear algebra, matrix, algebra proposed, algebra
24.04.2005 16:41
BTW, check out this test, problem 3 It seems that this is an ISL 2004 problem. All the questions of the test No that Pierre has solved this not so long time ago. THis test seemed to be a great joke.
24.04.2005 16:41
Upps, sorry, I did not see you precised the link.
24.04.2005 16:54
Can someone post a link with Pierre's solution? It seems the Romanian students are not paying attention to the site (dzeta included!). I can count at least 3 problems from these TSTs that are posted with full solutions on the site
24.04.2005 16:58
Valentin, on the other hand I do not think that Romanian TSTs should show who is paying attention to the site, although they seem to...
24.04.2005 17:59
I have proved that $ f(p-1)=p-1 $ for all prime number $p$ and I d'ont know if it can help.
24.04.2005 18:31
Look some three pages before in the proposed problems section at one of piglfly's posts with a very suggestive title $ f^2(m)+f(n)| (m^2+n)^2$ and you will see how close you are!
24.04.2005 18:35
Valentine,let's have a look here: http://mathlinks.ro/Forum/topic-27188.html
24.04.2005 18:41
I'm really sorry for I don't know how to creat a link
24.04.2005 20:40
nalpaction wrote: I'm really sorry for I don't know how to creat a link Just write it down. It will be transformed automatically in a link. Or read the FAQ of the BBCode
30.05.2005 12:33
This problem is from Mohsen Jamali designer of problem 6 of IMO 2004.
16.01.2013 09:47
My solution. $f(1)^2+f(1)\mid 4\Rightarrow f(1)=1$ .let $p$ be a prime and large enough. we have $f(1)^2+f(p-1)\mid p^2\Rightarrow f(p-1)=p-1$($f(p-1)$ can not be $p^2$). we have $\left.\begin{matrix} (p-1)^2+f(m)\mid ((p-1)^2+m)^2\\ (p-1)^2+f(m)\mid (p-1)^4+f(m)(p-1)^2\\ (p-1)^2+f(m)\mid (f(m)-2m)(p-1)^2-m^2\\ (p-1)^2+f(m)\mid (f(m)-2m)(p-1)^2+(f(m)-2m)f(m) \end{matrix}\right\}\Rightarrow (p-1)^2+f(m)\mid(f(m)-2m)f(m)+m^2$ so $(f(m)-2m)f(m)+m^2=0$ because $p$ is large enough.so we have $(f(m)-2m)f(m)+m^2=0$ and $f(m)=m$