On the sides $AD$ and $BC$ of a rhombus $ABCD$ we consider the points $M$ and $N$ respectively. The line $MC$ intersects the segment $BD$ in the point $T$, and the line $MN$ intersects the segment $BD$ in the point $U$. We denote by $Q$ the intersection between the line $CU$ and the side $AB$ and with $P$ the intersection point between the line $QT$ and the side $CD$. Prove that the triangles $QCP$ and $MCN$ have the same area.
Problem
Source: Romanian JBMO TST 2005 - day 2, problem 2
Tags: geometry, rhombus
02.04.2005 16:54
Valentin Vornicu wrote: We denote by $Q$ the intersection between the line $AB$ and the side $AB$... That'd just be AB, right?
02.04.2005 17:10
nr1337 wrote: Valentin Vornicu wrote: We denote by $Q$ the intersection between the line $AB$ and the side $AB$... That'd just be AB, right? It's $CU$ actually. I've modified the statement. Thanks for noticing.
04.04.2005 03:53
Since the triangles $\triangle QCP, \triangle MCN$ have the same altitudes from the vertices $Q, M$ to the sides $CP, CN$, respectively, equal to the distance between the opposite sides of the rhombus $ABCD$, it is necessary to show that $CP = CN$. Using a parallel projection, we can project the rhombus $ABCD$ into a square $A'B'C'D'$, while preserving all area ratios. Hence, it is sufficient to prove the proposition for a square $ABCD$. Let $a = AB$ be the side of the square and $m = \frac{AM}{AD} = \frac{AM}{a}$, $n = \frac{BN}{BC} = \frac{BN}{a}$, $p = \frac{DP}{DC} = \frac{DP}{a}$. We have to show that $n = p$ regardless of $m$. From similarity of the triangles $\triangle BNU \sim \triangle DMU$, we have $\frac{BU}{DU} = \frac{BN}{DM} = \frac{n}{m - 1}$. From similarity of the triangles $\triangle BQU \sim \triangle DQU$, we have $\frac{BQ}{DC} = \frac{BU}{DU} = \frac{n}{m - 1}$. From similarity of the triangles $\triangle BCT \sim \triangle DMT$, we have $\frac{BT}{DT} = \frac{BC}{DM} = \frac{1}{m - 1}$. From similarity of the triangles $\triangle BTQ \sim \triangle DTP$, we have $\frac{BQ}{DP} = \frac{BT}{DT} = \frac{1}{m - 1}$. On the other hand, $\frac{BQ}{DP} = \frac{BQ}{DC} \cdot \frac{DC}{DP} = \frac{n}{m - 1} \cdot \frac 1 p$. Thus $\frac{1}{1 - m} = \frac{n}{m - 1} \cdot \frac 1 p$ or $n = p$.
Attachments:

24.04.2005 01:48
you can prove it using just simillarities in the same way, without complicated stuff like parallel projections, which btw i have no idea what they are(no need to assume abcd = square)