Let $f: \mathbb{Z}^2\to \mathbb{R}$ be a function. It is known that for any integer $C$ the four functions of $x$ \[f(x,C), f(C,x), f(x,x+C), f(x, C-x)\]are polynomials of degree at most $100$. Prove that $f$ is equal to a polynomial in two variables and find its maximal possible degree. Remark: The degree of a bivariate polynomial $P(x,y)$ is defined as the maximal value of $i+j$ over all monomials $x^iy^j$ appearing in $P$ with a non-zero coefficient.
Problem
Source: 2022 Israel TST test 10 P2
Tags: function, algebra, polynomial
25.08.2022 23:50
I'll add a solution because I think this is a really cool problem.
07.06.2023 18:30
(a) We will only be using that $f(x, C)$ and $f(C, x)$ are always polynomials of degree at most 100. From this information, we may use Lagrange Interpolation twice to construct $f$ from a finite set of points, namely $f(\{0, \cdots, 100\}^2)$. Here are the details. Consider the polynomial $$F(x, y)=\sum_{i=0}^{100} \left(\left(\sum_{j=0}^{100} f(i, j) \cdot \prod_{0\leq k \leq 100, \quad k\neq j} \frac{y-k}{j-k}\right) \cdot \prod_{0\leq l \leq 100, \quad l\neq i} \frac{x-l}{i-l} \right).$$I claim that $F(a, b)$ is equal to $f(a, b)$ for every $(a, b)\in \mathbb{Z}^2$. By construction, $F-f$ is zero on $\{0, \cdots, 100\}^2$, so, since $F-f$ has degree at most 100 in each variable, it is zero whenever $1\leq x\leq 100$ or $1\leq y\leq 100$, so, taking any hortzontal line $y=a$, it is 0 in 101 points on this line (namely when $0\leq x\leq 100$), so the polynomial $(F-f)(x, a)$ is always 0. Hence $F$ and $f$ agree on $\mathbb{Z}^2$. $\square$ (b) The answer is 133, with a possible construction being $f(x, y)=(x-y)^{34}(x+y)^{33}x^{33}y^{33}$. The key idea in this solution is to let $P(x, y)$ be the Taylor polynomial of degree 100 of $f$, and let $g(x,y)=f(x,y)-P(x,y)$, so that, since $f$ is a polynomial, all monomials $x^ay^b$ of $g$ satisfy $a+b\geq 101$. Lemma: $xy(x+y)(x-y)$ divides $g(x, y)$. Proof: To prove this, we will perform four different polynomial divisions. Consider $g(x,x)$. On one hand, it is a multiple of $x^{101}$. On the other hand, it is $f(x,x)-P(x,x)$, the diference of two polynomials of degree $\leq100$ by virtue of the problem statement and the definition of $P$. Thus, $g(x,x)$ is the $0$ polynomial. By Ruffini we may write $g(x,y)=(x-y)Q(x,y)+r(x)$, so we conclude $r\equiv 0$ and hence $x-y\mid g(x,y)$. Consider $g(x,0)$. By the same reasoning as above, we conclude $x\mid g(x,y)$. Consider $g(0,y)$. By the same reasoning as above, we conclude $y\mid g(x,y)$. Consider $g(x,-x)$. By the same reasoning as above, we conclude $x+y\mid g(x,y)$. This proves the lemma. $\square$ Now, the polynomial $\frac{g(x, y)}{xy(x-y)(x+y)}$ has the same properties as $f$, but for 97 instead of 100. This means that we may repeat the above procedure and induct down 33 times, until we find a polynomial that has the same properties for 1. For the base case of 1, it is not hard to see that $f$ can have degree at most 1, as any $x^2, y^2, xy$ terms lead to a contradiction to the asumptions made in the problem statement. Thus, we find that the original degree of $f$ is at most $33*4+1=133$ as the answer. $\blacksquare$