Given natural number $a>1$ and different odd prime numbers $p_1,p_2,...,p_n$ with $a^{p_1}\equiv 1$ (mod $p_2$), $a^{p_2}\equiv 1$ (mod $p_3$), ..., $a^{p_n}\equiv 1$(mod $p_1$). Prove that a) $(a-1)\vdots p_i$ for some $i=1,..,n$ b) Can $(a-1)$ be divisible by $p_i $for exactly one $i$ of $i=1,...,n$? I. Bliznets