Problem

Source: IMO Shortlist 2000, A6

Tags: algebra, number theory, Combinatorial Number Theory, Sequence, IMO Shortlist



A nonempty set $ A$ of real numbers is called a $ B_3$-set if the conditions $ a_1, a_2, a_3, a_4, a_5, a_6 \in A$ and $ a_1 + a_2 + a_3 = a_4 + a_5 + a_6$ imply that the sequences $ (a_1, a_2, a_3)$ and $ (a_4, a_5, a_6)$ are identical up to a permutation. Let $A = \{a_0 = 0 < a_1 < a_2 < \cdots \}$, $B = \{b_0 = 0 < b_1 < b_2 < \cdots \}$ be infinite sequences of real numbers with $ D(A) = D(B),$ where, for a set $ X$ of real numbers, $ D(X)$ denotes the difference set $ \{|x-y|\mid x, y \in X \}.$ Prove that if $ A$ is a $ B_3$-set, then $ A = B.$