Wait I didn't get the question... You just substitute $x=y$ to get $2g(x,x)=0=>g(x,x)=0$

Olympus_mountaineer wrote: Higher Secondary P2 Let $g$ be a function from the set of ordered pairs of real numbers to the same set such that $g(x, y)=-g(y, x)$ for all real numbers $x$ and $y$. Find a real number $r$ such that $g(x, x)=r$ for all real numbers $x$. I'm not sure if I'm wrong, but... Can't you just substitute $x=y$, which shows that $g(x,x)=-g(x,x)\implies g(x,x)=0$?

Yes,Answer is $0$.You both are right.

Isn't this problem a bit too trivial to appear in an olympiad? I mean, the only thing you literally need to do is substitute $x=y$, which doesn't require any thinking at all.

Actually, it is really an easy one.