Problem

Source: ELMO SL 2018 A1

Tags: function, algebra, functional equation



Let $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ be a bijective function. Does there always exist an infinite number of functions $g:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ such that $f(g(x))=g(f(x))$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$? Proposed by Daniel Liu