A group of mathematicians is attending a conference. We say that a mathematician is $k-$content if he is in a room with at least $k$ people he admires or if he is admired by at least $k$ other people in the room. It is known that when all participants are in a same room then they are all at least $3k + 1$-content. Prove that you can assign everyone into one of $2$ rooms in a way that everyone is at least $k$-content in his room and neither room is empty. Admiration is not necessarily mutual and no one admires himself.
Matija Bucić
@above: First, your assumption to consider only a non-directed graph can't be justified. Second- the beginning of the induction step is not satisfying for me- how does assuming you have a graph with $n+1$ vertices, satisfying the requirements, implies you can construct a graph with $n$ vertices also complying by itself the conditions. Finally, the way you "prove" it can also prove the statement, but under an weaker condition being initially $2k+1$-content, which is very suspicious...
It's been a while, and no working solution seems to be posted so far, so here goes the official solution.
We will for simplicity and clarity of presentation use some basic graph theoretic terms, this is in no way essential.
We represent the situation by a directed graph (abbr. digraph) $G(V, E)$ where each vertex $v \in V (G)$ represents a mathematician and each edge $e \in E(G)$ represents an admiration relation. Given $v \in V (G)$ we define out-degree of $v$ denoted $o(v)$ as the number of edges starting in $v$ (so the number of mathematicians $v$ admires) and in-degree $i(v)$ as the number of edges ending in $v$ (so the number of mathematicians who admire $v$). Given $X \subseteq V$ by $G(X)$ we denote the induced subgraph (a graph with vertex set $X$ and edges inherited from $G$). We say that a digraph is a $k$-digraph if for every $v\in V (G)$ we have $i(v) \ge k$ or $o(v) \ge k$.
So the question can be reformulated as: Given $G$ is a $3k + 1$-digraph we can split its vertices into $2$ vertex disjoint classes such that each induced subgraph on class is a $k$-digraph.
We call a subset $X$ of vertices of $G$, $k$-tight if for any $Y \subseteq X$ we have a vertex $v \in Y$ such that $i_{G(Y )}(v) \le k$ and $o_{G(Y )}(v) \le k$. A partition of $V$ , $(A_1, A_2)$ is feasible if $A_1$ is $k$-tight and $A_2$ is $k$-tight.
We first assume there are no feasible partitions. In this case consider a minimal size subset $A_1 \subseteq V (G)$ subject to $G(A_1)$ being a $k$-digraph, we define $A_2 \equiv V (G) - A_1$.
Given a subset $X \subset A_1$, $G(X)$ is not a $k$-digraph so there is a vertex $v \in X$ such that $o_{G(X)}(v) < k$ and $i_{G(X)}(v) < k$ which shows that any proper subset of $A_1$ satisfies the condition of $k$-tightness. For the case of $X \equiv A_1$, by removing any vertex $v \in A_1$ the graph $G' \equiv G(A_1 - \{v\})$, by minimality assumption on $A_1$, must contain a vertex $w$ such that $o_{G'} (w) < k$ and $i_{G'} (w) < k$ so as there is only one extra vertex in $G(A_1)$, namely $v$, so $o_{G(A_1)}(w) \le k, i_{G(A_1)}(w) \le k$. In particular this shows $A_1$ is $k$-tight. This implies $A_2$ is not $k$-tight by our assumption so there exists an $A'_2 \subseteq A_2$ such that $A'_2$ is a $k + 1$-digraph. Now applying the following proposition to extend the pair $(A_1, A'_2)$ to a full partition which satisfies the conditions of the problem.
Given disjoint subsets $A, B \subseteq V (G)$ we say $(A, B)$ is a solution pair if both $G(A)$ and $G(B)$ are $k$-digraphs.
Proposition: If a $2k+ 1$-digraph $G$ admits a solution pair it admits a partition with both induced graphs of both classes being $k$-digraphs.
Proof. Take a maximal solution pair $(A, B)$, the condition in the lemma guaranteeing it exists. Let $C = V (G)-(A\cup B)$, if C is empty we are done so assume $|C| > 0$. By our assumption $(A, B \cup C)$ is not a solution pair so there is some $x \in C$ such that $o_{G(B\cup C)}(x), i_{G(B\cup C)}(x) < k$ so as $G$ is $2k + 1$ digraph $i_G(x) \ge 2k + 1$ or $o_G(x) \ge 2k + 1$ so either $o_{G(A\cup \{x\})}(x) > k + 1$ or $i_{G(A\cup \{x\})}(x) > k + 1$ so in particular $(A \cup \{x\}, B)$ is a solution pair contradicting maximality and completing our argument. $\square$
Hence we are left with the case in which we have at least one feasible partition. We pick the feasible partition $(A, B)$ maximizing $w(A, B)=|E(G(A))| + |E(G(B))|$. The fact that $A$ is $k$-tight implies there is an $x$ with $o_{G(A)}(x) \le k$, $i_{G(A)}(x) \le k$ so $x$ needs to have at least $k + 1$ edges in or out of $B$, so $|B| \ge k + 1$ and by symmetry $|A| \ge k + 1$.
We now prove that there exist an $X \subseteq A$ such that $G(X)$ is a $k$-digraph, by contradiction. Assuming the opposite we notice that for any $x \in B$, $B - \{x\}$ is still $k$-tight while $B$ being $k$-tight implies there is an $x \in B$ such that $o_{G(B)}(x) \le k,i_{G(B)}(x) \le k$ so for this $x$ we have $A\cup \{x\}$ is also $k$-tight. Hence, for $A' = A\cup \{x\}$ and $B' = B - \{x\}$, $(A', B')$ is a feasible partition. Considering the change in edges which moving $x$ causes, we have $w(A', B')-w(A, B) \ge 3k+1-k-k-k = 1$, as we know $i_G(x) \ge 3k + 1$ or $o_G(x) \ge 3k + 1$, so moving $x$ from $B$ to $A$ increases number of edges in $A$ by at least $3k + 1 - k$, while the choice of $x$ in $B$ means we lose at most $k + k$ edges in B. This is a contradiction to maximality of $(A, B)$.
Analogously we can find $Y \subseteq B$ with $G(Y )$ a $k$-digraph. Now applying the above proposition yet again we are done. $\blacksquare$
enhanced wrote:
...I just meant that G be a graph with n+1 vertices such that each vertices are adjacent to at least 3k+1 vertices,then by deleting the last vertex we would have a graph with n vertices satisfying that each vertex is adjacent to atleast 3k+1 vertices...
At least I hope now you understand because of you I removed my solution
I've meant exactly the same. But what does in mean "...then by deleting the last vertex.." ? It may happen deleting a vertex and the edges incident with this vertex) affects the degree of other vertices and thus they wouldn't be connected with $3k+1$ vertices after that.
And besides, if you are convinced you solved the problem, you should defend your solution and be more aggressive and not delete it "because of me"