Prove that there are infinitely natural numbers $n$ such that $n$ can't be written as a sum of two positive integers with prime factors less than $1394$.
Problem
Source: Iranian third round number theory P1
Tags: number theory, algebra
06.09.2015 23:56
I made a very similar problem in the past year... can Iran read things from my mind? Just kidding. The slightly harder (more annoying, definitely) version is where $n$ can't be written as a sum or a difference of these guys (or a product or a division, or even an exponentiation, but those last two cases are easily dispatched). In fact, every infinite arithmetic progression contains infinitely many of these guys (and there exist multitudes of infinite arithmetic progressions consisting of only these guys). I'll leave that as an exercise to the reader.
07.09.2015 10:42
07.09.2015 11:32
very nice solution by SCLT: we can generalize this problem by the same way: Let $k,s$ be two positive integer. prove that there are infinitely natural numbers $n$ such that $n$ can't be written as a sum of at most $s$ integers with prime factors less than $k$.
25.03.2016 11:36
Not sure I am right but this is too simple solution.Let n be odd(it's exactly same if it's even),$n=x+y$ , $WLOG x>y$ so $x=n-y$ so $y\in1,2,3...\frac{n-1}{2}$.Now let $p_{1},p_{2}...p_{\frac{n-1}{2}}$ be primes greater then $1394$ and let $n\equiv \frac{n-1}{2} (modp_{\frac{n-1}{2}}), n\equiv \frac{n-3}{2} (modp_{\frac{n-3}{2}}), ...n\equiv 1 (mod p_{1})$ which is equivalent $n\equiv \ -1 (modp_{\frac{n-1}{2}}), n\equiv -3 (modp_{\frac{n-3}{2}}),.. n\equiv 1 (mod p_{1})$ so by $CRT$ there are infinetly many $n$ satysfing this condition so $x$ is always divisible by $p_{1}$ or $p_{2}$...or$ p_{\frac{n-1}{2}}$ so we are done.
30.05.2019 17:22
Garfield wrote: Not sure I am right but this is too simple solution.Let n be odd(it's exactly same if it's even),$n=x+y$ , $WLOG x>y$ so $x=n-y$ so $y\in1,2,3...\frac{n-1}{2}$.Now let $p_{1},p_{2}...p_{\frac{n-1}{2}}$ be primes greater then $1394$ and let $n\equiv \frac{n-1}{2} (modp_{\frac{n-1}{2}}), n\equiv \frac{n-3}{2} (modp_{\frac{n-3}{2}}), ...n\equiv 1 (mod p_{1})$ which is equivalent $n\equiv \ -1 (modp_{\frac{n-1}{2}}), n\equiv -3 (modp_{\frac{n-3}{2}}),.. n\equiv 1 (mod p_{1})$ so by $CRT$ there are infinetly many $n$ satysfing this condition so $x$ is always divisible by $p_{1}$ or $p_{2}$...or$ p_{\frac{n-1}{2}}$ so we are done. This is incorrect. You cant use CRT like that, first you fix $n$ and then you say it exists.
03.08.2020 09:38
SCLT wrote:
You can prove it easier : if $ k $ is the number of prime numbers less than $1394 $ , we have at most $ a^k $ numbers between $ 1 $ to $ 2^a $ such that every prime divisor of these numbers are less than $ 1394 $ . so we have at most $ a^{2k} $ good numbers between $ 1 $ to $ 2^a $ . and easy to see that $ 2^{a} - a^{2k} $ is going to infinite and the problem is solved $ \blacksquare $
03.08.2020 12:06
Very closely to above. Consider the set $N$ of numbers $n$ such that $M\ge \nu_p(n)$ for every arbitrary prime indeed $$n=\prod_{i=1}^k p_i^{\nu_{p_i}(n)}$$So if we consider the greatest number in $N$ this must be $m=\prod_{i=1}^k p_i^M$. So clearly we have $\# N=\tau(m)=(M+1)^k$. So we have bounded the numbers such that are the sum of two elements from $N$ indeed is at most $\tau(m)^2$. Consider $f(x)=\frac{x}{\tau(x)^2}$. Notice that $f(mn)=f(m)f(n)$ for integers such that $\gcd(m,n)=1$. So consider a prime $p$ and so $f(p^e)=\frac{p^e}{2e+2}$ it's easy to see $f(p^e)$ becomes arbitrary larger for larger values of $e$. So $f(x)$ also becomes arbitrary larger and this means $x-\tau(x)^2$ becomes arbitrary larger and we are done.
20.08.2021 20:40