Let $r,n$ be positive integers. For a set $A$, let ${A \choose r}$ denote the family of all $r$-element subsets of $A$. Prove that if $A$ is infinite and $f : {A \choose r} \to {1,2,...,n}$ is any function, then there exists an infinite subset $B$ of $A$ such that $f(X) = f(Y)$ for all $X,Y \in {B \choose r}$.