Let $Y$ be the family of all subsets of $X = \{1,2,...,n\}$ ($n > 1$) and let $f : Y \to X$ be an arbitrary mapping. Prove that there exist distinct subsets $A,B$ of $X$ such that $f(A) = f(B) = max A\triangle B$, where $A\triangle B = (A-B)\cup(B-A)$.